4. Your patient is an 38 year old male that presents with a fever of 102, headache, neck pain and stiffness. He has had nausea and vomiting. You decide to do a spinal tap and the results are as follows:
WBC 2500, RBC 2, Glucose 12 (low), Protein high. The patients culture and gram stain is pending. Based upon this data, which of the following is the best management option?
A. Admit the patient to the hospital for symptomatic treatment.
B. Give the patient 2 grams or Rocephin IV, 1 gram of Vancomycin, and Acyclovir IV and admit the patient to the hospital
C. Start the patient on Acyclovir empirically and admit the patient to the hospital.
D. Discharge the patient home, these spinal results are normal
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